There's an entire major region, spanning the entire South America and parts of North America, called "Latin America". People there tend to speak Spanish and closely related languages. There's also the classic/dead language "Latin", which, while it shares some similarities, is not very close to Spanish as far as I can tell.
The term comes from the fact that the predominant languages of the countries originated with the Latin language.
But doesn't English and French and German and Italian and basically everything in Europe come from Latin as well? Wasn't Latin what the Romans spoke in the Roman empire? The entire basis of all these "variations" of the same basic "root" language?
I don't understand why Latin America somehow "deserves" that name when you might as well say "Latin USA" or "Latin Italy" or "Latin England" and "Latin Sweden" and so on, since they are all based on Latin too. Why specifically label a region "Latin America" just because they (also) speak a Latin-based language there?
There's a stark contrast between a Roman emperor speaking fancy Latin before the people back in the day, and a modern-day Latina dancing to Zumba music. Both are called "Latin" but they seem to have very little if anything in common which is unique to them in the "Latin America" region specifically, as opposed to all the other places where descendants of Romans/Latin-speaking peoples exist.
So why refer to "Latin America" in particular when nobody says "Latin X" where "X" is any other region?