In Reginaldus Foster's text book Ossa Latinitatis Sola, he states that, apart from the First Person Singular, the forms for Future Perfect Indicative and Perfect Subjunctive are the same. And, indeed, looking at the paradigms in John C. Traupman's New College Dictionary and W. Michael Wilson's Essentials of Latin Grammar confirms that this is so.
However, when I look at the paradigms in my First Year Latin books, namely Wheelock's 7th edition, and at Gavin Betts' Teach Yourself Latin, I see some slight differences. For example, there I find under amo amāverimus for the Future Perfect and amāverīmus for the subjunctive. (If you missed it, the i is long in the subjunctive, but not in the indicative.) The length of the i in some of the other forms change as well.
My question is, what is the cause or back story behind this disagreement?