6

(Psalm 99:3) Scitóte quóniam Dóminus ipse est Deus: * ipse fecit nos, et non ipsi nos.

(Douay Rheims) Know ye that the Lord he is God: * he made us, and not we ourselves.

How exactly does one parse "non ipsi nos" in this sentence? I would have treated ipsi as a nominative plural and nos as a direct object and translated the senctence as "Know that the Lord is God; he made us, and they didn't make us." However, judging from the Douay Rheims translation, it looks like something reflexive might be going.

0
4

One way to parse non ipsi nos is to parse nos as a nominative plural pronoun and ipsi as a nominative plural adjective. The phrase then means "not we ourselves".

4
  • 1
    Though this is possible, the parallelism ("ipse...nos, non ipsi...nos") strongly inclines me to read nos as accusative. – brianpck Feb 6 '20 at 18:52
  • 3
    I think you were right the first time. If nos were accusative, there wouldn't really be anything to link ipsi to a first-person subject idea. In that case, I, for one, would naturally read it as 'they themselves' (as indeed the original poster tried to do) – especially since both preceding occurrences of ipse were for a 3rd person singular subject. Plus, the repetition of accusative nos would be pretty clunky. However, I freely confess that I'm completely out of my element in the Vulgate. – cnread Feb 7 '20 at 20:14
  • 1
    @cnread I think you're right now. The Greek is in the nominative, and usually the Vulgate adheres very closely to the LXX: "γνῶτε ὅτι Κύριος, αὐτός ἐστιν ὁ Θεὸς ἡμῶν, αὐτὸς ἐποίησεν ἡμᾶς καὶ οὐχ ἡμεῖς." – brianpck Feb 8 '20 at 15:24
  • Ok, I removed the alternate parsing from my answer. Thanks guys! – ktm5124 Feb 9 '20 at 16:01

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.