Psalm 92 v. 1
Dóminus regnávit, decórem indútus est: * indútus est Dóminus fortitúdinem, et præcínxit se.
The Lord hath reigned, he is clothed with beauty: * the Lord is clothed with strength, and hath girded himself.
Here, I understand that we have the passive perfect participle indutus. Induo roughly means "I clothe," so indutus est would seem to mean "he is clothed."
Now, being a native English speaker, if I wanted to say "he is clothed in beauty," I would probably say in decore indutus est or cum decore indutus est or simply decore indutus est. (In the last case, allowing the ablative without the preposition to answer the question "how?").
I was taught from day one that the accusative is used for the direct object, but that doesn't seem to be what's going on in this psalm verse. What grammatical structure is Jerome using here? Is it a peculairity of the verb induo, induere? Or is it a grammatical structure that can be used with other verbs too?