grammar of "sapientiae tuae non est numerus"

Question

in Confessions we read:

magnus es, domine, et laudabilis valde. magna virtus tua et sapientiae tuae non est numerus.

while the meaning is quite clear, I can't clearly resolve the literal translation and/or grammar of the sentence. I've thought of several options:

1) "sapientiae tuae" - gen. case => number of your wisdom "non est" . I have problem with this option as "non est" would mean "does not exist". But is this valid? I would assume "non est" would be better translated as "is not"

2) same as (1), but this time "sapientiae tuae" will take the dative case. ("to your wisdom")

3) maybe literal translation is: "of your wisdom is not a number"

Thanks.

Answer 1

I'd go for your second option, i.e., to analyze sapientiae tuae non est numerus as containing a dative of possession: literally, 'to your wisdom there is no number'//'your wisdom has no number' (cf. sapientia tua non habet numerum). The idea is that the wisdom of God cannot be calculated since it is infinite.

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EDIT

Although the dative reading of sapientiae tuae in this example is also found in this authoritative commentary of the Language in the Confessions of Augustine (please see page 114), let me say that, on second thought, your third reading, the one that involves considering sapientiae tuae as a topicalized genitive nominal (lit. 'of your wisdom there is no number'), is not to be excluded.

Answer 2

I prefer to read this as a genitive rather than a dative.

I think it's worth pointing out two Scriptural parallel, which I was able to find using this commentary, as well as one parallel from the Nicene creed:

1. Psalm 146:5:

   Magnus Dominus noster, et magna virtus ejus,
   et sapientiæ ejus non est numerus.

   Obviously, this has the same ambiguity as in Augustine's text, but the Greek text actually uses the genitive, even though it, like Latin, could have used the dative. (I realize this isn't a knock-down argument, since Augustine didn't read Greek and the Latin doesn't have to correspond to the Greek, but I think it's definitely a point in favor.)

   μέγας ὁ Κύριος ἡμῶν, καὶ μεγάλη ἡ ἰσχὺς αὐτοῦ,
   καὶ τῆς συνέσεως αὐτοῦ οὐκ ἔστιν ἀριθμός.

2. The Latin text of the Nicene creed:

   Et iterum venturus est cum gloria,
   iudicare vivos et mortuos,
   cuius regni non erit finis.

   This is unambiguously genitive and has the same "gen. + non est + limiting noun" structure.

3. Psalm 144:3:

   Magnus Dominus, et laudabilis nimis,
   et magnitudinis ejus non est finis.

   This, too, is unambiguously genitive, and the preceding part is clearly echoed in Augustine's thought.

Augustine was positively steeped in the Scriptures, and particularly the psalms, and this is especially evident in the opening of the Confessions. My own ear, and these Scriptural parallels, strongly inclines me towards the reading as a genitive.

Obviously, the meaning would remain the same.

Answer 3

It's perfectly correct and common to have both a possessive adjective and a genitive of possession with the same noun. Possession by a personal pronoun can't be shown by the genitive form of that pronoun but has to be expressed with the related possessive adjective; and although possession by some nouns can be shown through a related adjective (for example, regalis may be used with the same meaning as regis), not all nouns have such a related adjectives (and at any rate, the genitive is more common). Therefore, if possession of some noun by both a personal pronoun and some other noun has to be shown, you're likely to get this mixture of constructions.

In short, I'd say that this means 'The great virtue of you and of your wisdom...' or 'Your great virtue and that of your wisdom....'

Update:

Based on the other uses of non est numerus cited by Mitomino and brianpck, I see that this answer is incorrect. Ah well. I'm still inclined to view sapientiae tuae as genitive rather than dative, though – just a different type of genitive.