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The asker of another question cited a passage from a Hebrew-Latin lexicon:

At הֲלוֹם, arab. هَلُمَّ particula, huc, usque huc. pr. appactim.

Another edition of the book seems to confirm this phrasing.

Most of it makes sense to me—according to other dictionaries, the Hebrew word does indeed mean hūc ("hither").

But what is appactim? I've never seen this word before, and can't find it in any of my usual dictionaries.

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    What does "pr." mean? – fdb Dec 29 '19 at 18:38
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    Note that, although the edition that you link to does confirm the word appactim, the entry there is quite different from the entry that you quote from. It appears to give the meaning of the Hebrew word, when it isn't a particle, as equivalent to Latin impegit or contudit, or, as a noun, tunsio. That's significant because, if appactim is from appangere (and I suspect Nick Decroos is correct), impegit shares a root (im + pangere). So perhaps appactim means fixedly, forcefully, permanently (i.e., enduring usque huc)? Can the Hebrew word have that type of meaning? (I know no Hebrew at all.) – cnread Dec 29 '19 at 20:43
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This is conjectural, but building on Nick Decroos's answer and cnread's comments, appactim may be intended as an adverb meaning something like "(fixed) fast".

Formally, it's pretty clearly an adverb in -im (as in verbatim etc.), and the stem does seem to be that of pangō "fix, fasten" with the prefix ad-. I'm not finding any attestations for a verb appangō; the Latindict link Nick gives says there's one citation in Lewis and Short, but Perseus seems to know nothing of this, nor does du Cange's massive Latin dictionary. There is a rare verb appingō, though, with the vowel change one would expect in such prefixed verbs, and if this verb is like impingō, its passive participle would be appactus, from which appactim would be regularly formed.

As for what the lexicon entry is trying to say: I'm guessing pr. might stand for propriē "in a proper sense, literally". (Searching for "pr." in the same lexicon yields a number of entries where a more literal meaning marked pr. is followed by a more figurative meaning marked with hinc or inde.) If so, what it's saying is that הֲלוֹם halōm as a particle means "hither", but that its original or literal meaning is appactim.

What does הֲלוֹם actually mean? There are actually two (unrelated I believe, though the lexicon seems to think otherwise) homonyms in Hebrew. הֲלוֹם can be an adverb meaning "hither" (huc, usque huc); but it can also be a form of the verb root h-l-m "pound, strike forcefully" (impegit, contudit). It seems that the lexicon is improbably deriving the "hither" meaning from the "pound" meaning, presumably by a semantic route like "pounded" -> "fixed fast" -> "here" -> "hither".

  • I completely agree that pr. = proprie. I have two questions: 1. Is הֲלוֹם always spatial, or can it describe a sort of extensiveness in, e.g., time or degree too, as either huc alone or its compounds (e.g., adhuc) can? 2. The linked entry in the lexicon includes attestations: Gen. 16.13, Iud. (= Judges? Judith?) 10.7, Ps. 73.10. What word or phrase is used to translate הֲלוֹם there, esp. in the Vulgate (but the Septuagint might also be useful)? – cnread Dec 31 '19 at 2:02
  • @cnread In modern Hebrew הֲלוֹם can be temporal ("up until now"), but is not used of degree ("to this extent"); but I did an Old Testament search and found 12 attestations all of which are spatial (one metaphorically so), so maybe the temporal sense is later. For translations, I find as follows. Gen. 16.13: Vulg. hic, Sept. ἐνώπιον. (I don't understand the meaning of this verse.) Psalms 73.10: Vulg. ad eos, Sept. ἐνταῦθα. (But Brown-Driver-Briggs think the Hebrew text is corrupt.) I can't find the "Iud. 10.7" attestation, but there are 10 or so other OT uses which I haven't looked at. – TKR Dec 31 '19 at 2:54
  • Strong's/BDB page for reference: biblehub.com/str/hebrew/1988.htm – TKR Dec 31 '19 at 2:59
  • Thanks. What was confusing me was that, in the version of the Vulgate that I was looking at (from the PHI discs), the numbering is off. The text that's given there for Gen. 16.13 is given in my hard copy as 17.13; and although the text given for Ps. 73.10 matches in both sources, I see that the Psalm is labeled in the hard copy as '73 (74)'; so apparently I should have been looking at the one labeled '72 (73).' Anyway, the only common thread I could see between my incorrect passages was an idea of continuity in time (aeternum in Gen., in finem in Ps.), hence my first question. – cnread Dec 31 '19 at 19:55
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I could not find appactim in either, in dictionaries or online.

Latindict gave for the stem 'appact' a page.

The associated verb means 'fasten to'.

However, I don't know why there is the suffic '-im' (assuming that appactim is derived from 'appangere').

EDIT:

As stated by cnread in the comments of this answer, -im could be an adverbial suffix.

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    Some third declension i-stems have this ending in the accusation singular, e.g., turrim and febrim. It is somewhat irregular, though, and turris ultimately derives from Greek, which often results in irregular declension. I don't think Greek is always the explanation, though. – C Monsour Dec 29 '19 at 0:32
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    I've been assuming that the -im is the adverbial suffix that shows up in words such as certatim and guttatim, rather than a third declension accusative ending. This suffix is added to perf. pass. participles, and pactus can be that form of either pango or paciscor (the compound appaciscor isn't listed in either OLD or Lewis & Short, but it could be post-classical). Not that this really helps decipher the meaning. – cnread Dec 29 '19 at 6:22
  • @cnread I agree that appactim doesn't appear to be a third declension noun. I was just trying to correct the categorical statement that was made about the suffix. Your suggestion seems more likely for this word. – C Monsour Dec 29 '19 at 15:02

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