Why the occurrence of "bubo" in the Virgilius text is an hapax?
This text is the only one listed in Lewis & Short with "bubo" being feminine.
Usually, it's a masculine noun. So, it is an hapax.
It is a mistake? The hint of a variant in the use of the word, existing among the Roman population, but not attested in other texts? Is there a logical reason for "bubo" having 2 possible genders? Did it have any consequences in the gender of descent languages?
Is it common for a noun to have 2 possible genders in Latin, or exceptional?
būbo, ōnis, masculine (feminine only once Vergilius A. 4, 462; cf. Serv. ad loc.;
I wonder that, because this word is listed as masculine and feminine in many dictionaries.