et audisset rex verba libri legis Domini, scidit vestimenta sua.
Yet, sometimes it appears with a dative. For example, 4 Regum, 22:19:
et perterritum est cor tuum, et humiliatus es coram Domino, auditis sermonibus contra locum istum, et habitatores ejus, quod videlicet fierent in stuporem et in maledictum ...
Now, audire can mean "to hear" or "to listen to". Is this distinction between accusative and dative used to stress precisely the meaning of the verb, as we would do in English by using either "to hear [someone/something]" or "to listen to [someone/something]"? Is there some profound distinction between the two forms of the verb?
By my superficial research, it seems there is no major distinction. For instance, L&S state:
C. To hear, to listen to, to obey, heed; orig. and class. only with acc., but also with dat.
Is this the case?