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Is there a semantic difference between "Etiam si omnes, ego non" and "Et si omnes ego non"?

I know Latin is loose when it comes to word order, and it seems to me the answer is no, but the way this sentence is worded in this Wikipedia article has me wondering if the uncommon "Et si omnes" changes the meaning in any way:

A variant is Et si omnes ego non, as written on the door of Philipp von Boeselager's home, highlighting the necessity of maintaining one's own opinion and moral judgment, even in the face of a differing view held by the majority (in particular, it refers to von Boeselager's dissent and resistance against Hitler during the Nazi dictatorship). 

The original, common "Etiam si omnes, ego non" also highlights the necessity of maintaining one's own opinion and moral judgment, even in the face of a differing view held by the majority. Any difference, or poor wording?

[Note: I am not asking if there is a big difference in the meanings, which there is not, but if there is a very fine, nuanced difference in the semantic stress of the sentence, created by the very fine, nuanced difference in the Latin]

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    My intuition would say there is little difference, possibly with some extra emphasis in etiam. – Cerberus May 21 '19 at 14:05
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The common phrase is etiam si (even if), but et can be used as a shorthand for etiam, which would be the only reasonable way of reading it in that sentence. So, there is no significant difference between the two.

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  • Thanks. You're quite right, but I'm not looking for a "significant difference". If there is any difference I think it would be a highly nuanced one, a very fine stressing of one semantic over another. – Johan88 May 22 '19 at 2:29
  • Length is the only difference. – Kingshorsey May 22 '19 at 15:25

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