4

14 Τῷ δὲ θεῷ χάρις τῷ πάντοτε θριαμβεύοντι ἡμᾶς ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ καὶ τὴν ὀσμὴν τῆς γνώσεως αὐτοῦ φανεροῦντι δι᾽ ἡμῶν ἐν παντὶ τόπῳ· 15 ὅτι Χριστοῦ εὐωδία ἐσμὲν... (2Cor 2:14-15)

I am translating this passage at the moment. And although I have dealt with much more problematic issues (like e.g θριαμβεύοντι) I'm stuck on the little ὅτι...

I wonder why NA28 put a semicolon before it. Not taking this into account, I would say that ὅτι refer to "Τῷ δὲ θεῷ χάρις" and it introduces a fact for which the apostle gives thanks (cf. Rom 6:17) - "thanks be to God (...) that we are a sweet aroma of Christ"...

But participles θριαμβεύοντι and φανεροῦντι must have very similar function there. I suppose that editor of NA interprets only mentioned participles as referring to fact for which Paul gives thanks, but ὅτι as something else.

Now I wonder what other meaning of ὅτι would be suitable in this passage; and if is it for sure a better option than my previous understanding. For example I know that ὅτι sometimes introduces some general statement, but it applies to citations and we have no citation there. Moreover sometimes it is a marker of causality, but I doubt that Paul intends to express a cause there.

Would you mind to give me some advice how to resolve this problem?

1 Answer 1

3

The ὅτι clause is explaining the participial clause governed by φανεροῦντι. How can it be that it is δι᾽ ἡμῶν that God is manifesting τὴν ὀσμὴν τῆς γνώσεως αὐτοῦ? In the sense that (ὅτι) Χριστοῦ εὐωδία ἐσμὲν...

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.