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Nov 14, 2018 at 21:34 history edited TKR CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 14, 2018 at 21:31 comment added TKR @brianpck, thanks, good point -- editing accordingly.
Nov 14, 2018 at 21:28 comment added Der Übermensch @TasosPapastylianou—I think it loses meaning when not translated as such; it is, after all, a valid English adjective. Moreover, I think Aristotle was thinking of the musical στροφή/ἀντιστροφή. If I were to read a translation with “complimentary” (for example), I would not have any idea that Aristotle had those in mind.
Nov 14, 2018 at 21:12 comment added Tasos Papastylianou I would also comment on 'antistrophic', that it would merit a better translation. Presumably what is meant is something along the lines that the two are complementary, or two sides of the same coin.
Nov 14, 2018 at 20:34 comment added brianpck I (and some translations I looked up) read the final genitive as one of possession, contrasting with ἁπάντων, roughly: "They are about such things whose knowledge is common to all and not belonging to one specific discipline."
Nov 14, 2018 at 18:35 comment added Der Übermensch I appreciate the help; I needed it on that one. :O
Nov 14, 2018 at 18:35 vote accept Der Übermensch
Nov 14, 2018 at 18:23 history answered TKR CC BY-SA 4.0