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Joonas Ilmavirta
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I have been given as an exercise this sentence to translate into Latin: "The soldier arrived in Herculaneum, a town near the mountain".

iI offered the translation of "Miles in Herculaneum pervenit, oppidum prope montem". However, the solution given to the exercise says that in the second part of the sentence, "oppidum quod erat prope montem" is preferred.

Would you consider this to be a more natural translation? My skepticism is due to the fact that the verb 'esse' is omitted so often that it seems strange that it is included in Latin where it would be shortened in English.

I have been given as an exercise this sentence to translate into Latin: "The soldier arrived in Herculaneum, a town near the mountain".

i offered the translation of "Miles in Herculaneum pervenit, oppidum prope montem". However, the solution given to the exercise says that in the second part of the sentence, "oppidum quod erat prope montem" is preferred.

Would you consider this to be a more natural translation? My skepticism is due to the fact that the verb 'esse' is omitted so often that it seems strange that it is included in Latin where it would be shortened in English.

I have been given as an exercise this sentence to translate into Latin: "The soldier arrived in Herculaneum, a town near the mountain".

I offered the translation of "Miles in Herculaneum pervenit, oppidum prope montem". However, the solution given to the exercise says that in the second part of the sentence, "oppidum quod erat prope montem" is preferred.

Would you consider this to be a more natural translation? My skepticism is due to the fact that the verb 'esse' is omitted so often that it seems strange that it is included in Latin where it would be shortened in English.

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Cataline
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Natural translation of "... Herculaneum, a town near the mountain"

I have been given as an exercise this sentence to translate into Latin: "The soldier arrived in Herculaneum, a town near the mountain".

i offered the translation of "Miles in Herculaneum pervenit, oppidum prope montem". However, the solution given to the exercise says that in the second part of the sentence, "oppidum quod erat prope montem" is preferred.

Would you consider this to be a more natural translation? My skepticism is due to the fact that the verb 'esse' is omitted so often that it seems strange that it is included in Latin where it would be shortened in English.