In Latin we have the ablative case. We often use it as ablativus loci. But in Slavonic languages we have a separate case: the locative.

What was first: did the instrumental and locative merge into one case in Latin, or did the Slavonic language invent the separate cases? Why don't we have a locative in Latin?

In Latin we have the ablative case. Its common uses can be described as instrumental and locative (ablativus loci). But in Slavonic languages we have a distinct locative case.

Did the instrumental and locative merge into one case in Latin, or did the Slavonic language invent the separate cases? When did this happen? Why don't we have a distinct locative case in Latin?

In Latin we have the ablative case. We often use it as ablativus instrumentalis or ablativus loci. But in Slavonic languages we have two corresponding cases: instrumental and locative.

What was first: did the instrumental and locative merge into one case in Latin, or did the Slavonic language invent the separate cases?

In Latin we have the ablative case. We often use it as ablativus loci. But in Slavonic languages we have a separate case: the locative.

What was first: did the instrumental and locative merge into one case in Latin, or did the Slavonic language invent the separate cases? Why don't we have a locative in Latin?