Timeline for In Vulgate in Matthew 26:29, is "bibam" present subjunctive or future indicative?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| May 7 at 9:15 | vote | accept | FlatAssembler | ||
| May 7 at 0:31 | answer | added | Tyler Durden | timeline score: 1 | |
| May 5 at 12:33 | comment | added | brianpck | @FlatAssembler It doesn't correspond exactly to any Latin or English tense, but it's used for a discrete, complete action (as opposed to a habitual one). Here, for instance, the nuance might be "I do not drink (once)" until "I drink it with you (habitually)." | |
| May 5 at 11:57 | comment | added | FlatAssembler | @brianpck What is aorist? | |
| May 4 at 14:31 | comment | added | brianpck | In the Greek, the corresponding verbs for bibam are πίω (aorist subjunctive) and πίνω (present subjunctive). But I think it's really hard to read the first bibam as anything but future in the Latin. | |
| May 4 at 14:25 | comment | added | FlatAssembler | @BenKovitz OK, but does the same peculiarity exist in Latin? | |
| May 4 at 14:01 | comment | added | Ben Kovitz | This looks like a peculiarity of English grammar: the present tense has future meaning in the construction "until the time when subject verb." | |
| May 4 at 13:27 | history | asked | FlatAssembler | CC BY-SA 4.0 |