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Kotoba Trily Ngian
Kotoba Trily Ngian
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From LLPSI FabullaeFabellae Latinae, the 67th story, "Infans Repertus":

Dum haec sēcum cōgitat, subitō mulier in viam exit multīs cum lacrimīs clāmāns: “Nūlla fēmina mē miserior vīvit! Melius erat mē mortuam esse quam sine īnfante meō vīvere!”

For context: Syra has just found an infant abandoned in the middle of the road and is considering bringing the infant to a nursemaid. The story uses the present tense throughout it.

Is there a reason why the woman uses "erat" instead of "est" in the last sentence? I saw from this helpful post - Change of tense from present to imperfect - that it is quite common in Latin to switch tenses. However, I'm not quite sure what nuances the tense-switching here induces.

Thanks in advance!

From LLPSI Fabullae Latinae, the 67th story, "Infans Repertus":

Dum haec sēcum cōgitat, subitō mulier in viam exit multīs cum lacrimīs clāmāns: “Nūlla fēmina mē miserior vīvit! Melius erat mē mortuam esse quam sine īnfante meō vīvere!”

For context: Syra has just found an infant abandoned in the middle of the road and is considering bringing the infant to a nursemaid. The story uses the present tense throughout it.

Is there a reason why the woman uses "erat" instead of "est" in the last sentence? I saw from this helpful post - Change of tense from present to imperfect - that it is quite common in Latin to switch tenses. However, I'm not quite sure what nuances the tense-switching here induces.

Thanks in advance!

From LLPSI Fabellae Latinae, the 67th story, "Infans Repertus":

Dum haec sēcum cōgitat, subitō mulier in viam exit multīs cum lacrimīs clāmāns: “Nūlla fēmina mē miserior vīvit! Melius erat mē mortuam esse quam sine īnfante meō vīvere!”

For context: Syra has just found an infant abandoned in the middle of the road and is considering bringing the infant to a nursemaid. The story uses the present tense throughout it.

Is there a reason why the woman uses "erat" instead of "est" in the last sentence? I saw from this helpful post - Change of tense from present to imperfect - that it is quite common in Latin to switch tenses. However, I'm not quite sure what nuances the tense-switching here induces.

Thanks in advance!

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Aries332
Aries332
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From LLPSI Fabullae Latinae, the 67th story, "Infans Repertus":

Dum haec sēcum cōgitat, subitō mulier in viam exit multīs cum lacrimīs clāmāns: “Nūlla fēmina mē miserior vīvit! Melius erat mē mortuam esse quam sine īnfante meō vīvere!”

For context: Syra has just found an infant abandoned in the middle of the road and is considering bringing the infant to a nursemaid. The story uses the present tense throughout it.

Is there a reason why the woman uses "erat" instead of "est" in the last sentence? I saw from this helpful post - Change of tense from present to imperfect - that it is quite common in Latin to switch tenses. However, I'm not quite sure what nuances the tense-switching induces here induces.

Thanks in advance!

From LLPSI Fabullae Latinae, the 67th story, "Infans Repertus":

Dum haec sēcum cōgitat, subitō mulier in viam exit multīs cum lacrimīs clāmāns: “Nūlla fēmina mē miserior vīvit! Melius erat mē mortuam esse quam sine īnfante meō vīvere!”

For context: Syra has just found an infant abandoned in the middle of the road and is considering bringing the infant to a nursemaid. The story uses the present tense throughout it.

Is there a reason why the woman uses "erat" instead of "est" in the last sentence? I saw from this helpful post - Change of tense from present to imperfect - that it is quite common in Latin to switch tenses. However, I'm not quite sure what nuances the tense-switching induces here.

Thanks in advance!

From LLPSI Fabullae Latinae, the 67th story, "Infans Repertus":

Dum haec sēcum cōgitat, subitō mulier in viam exit multīs cum lacrimīs clāmāns: “Nūlla fēmina mē miserior vīvit! Melius erat mē mortuam esse quam sine īnfante meō vīvere!”

For context: Syra has just found an infant abandoned in the middle of the road and is considering bringing the infant to a nursemaid. The story uses the present tense throughout it.

Is there a reason why the woman uses "erat" instead of "est" in the last sentence? I saw from this helpful post - Change of tense from present to imperfect - that it is quite common in Latin to switch tenses. However, I'm not quite sure what nuances the tense-switching here induces.

Thanks in advance!

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Aries332
Aries332
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Why is the imperfect tense used here instead of the present tense?

From LLPSI Fabullae Latinae, the 67th story, "Infans Repertus":

Dum haec sēcum cōgitat, subitō mulier in viam exit multīs cum lacrimīs clāmāns: “Nūlla fēmina mē miserior vīvit! Melius erat mē mortuam esse quam sine īnfante meō vīvere!”

For context: Syra has just found an infant abandoned in the middle of the road and is considering bringing the infant to a nursemaid. The story uses the present tense throughout it.

Is there a reason why the woman uses "erat" instead of "est" in the last sentence? I saw from this helpful post - Change of tense from present to imperfect - that it is quite common in Latin to switch tenses. However, I'm not quite sure what nuances the tense-switching induces here.

Thanks in advance!