Timeline for "Inter canem et lupum" in a Latin text?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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| Jan 22 at 4:01 | comment | added | lly | I could see how that'd be weird from a European perspective, tho' | |
| Jan 22 at 3:52 | comment | added | lly | @SebastianKoppehel Oh, ok. Wiki seems right that it wasn't as important as the other bits of the Body of Civil Law, particularly in the bit where the Brits still cared about Romans, before moving on to focus on the Common Law, before then turning their back on most of it in favor of modern reforms. | |
| Jan 21 at 14:40 | comment | added | Sebastian Koppehel | @lly "Inst." or even just "I." usually stands for Institutiones Iustiniani, an extremely well known 6th-century Roman legal text – certainly in philological writing, and I would have thought also in legal scholarship. | |
| Jan 19 at 14:01 | comment | added | lly | @SebastianKoppehel Just for curiosity's sake, what's the joke? | |
| Jan 19 at 9:06 | history | edited | Asteroides | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jan 19 at 0:56 | vote | accept | Simon Branch | ||
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| Jan 18 at 22:00 | comment | added | Sebastian Koppehel | It seems to have been a common expression in English law. Edward Coke explains it in the Third Book of his Institutes of the Laws of England, p. 63, citing two examples from “the raigne of E. I.,” i.e., the 13th century. (This book is apparently cited by English jurists as “Inst.,” LOL.) | |
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| Jan 18 at 21:35 | history | edited | Asteroides | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jan 18 at 21:29 | history | answered | Asteroides | CC BY-SA 4.0 |