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cmw
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Consider the following line from the Aeneid, Book VI:

nec credere quivi hunc tantum tibi me discessu ferre dolorem.

Context: Aeneas has traveled into the underworld, and bumps into Dido, who Aeneashe infers has committed suicide because of his departure.

My best literal translation is: "I couldn't believe this, my leaving, to bring unto you such pain," because I think that me discessu (for me to leave) stands in apposition with hunc. But I'm not sure whether supine verbs can have a subject argument.

So, generally, can an ablative clause formed from a supine verb have nouns corresponding to the base verb's subject or object?

Consider the following line from the Aeneid, Book VI:

nec credere quivi hunc tantum tibi me discessu ferre dolorem.

Context: Aeneas has traveled into the underworld, and bumps into Dido, who Aeneas infers has committed suicide because of his departure.

My best literal translation is: "I couldn't believe this, my leaving, to bring unto you such pain," because I think that me discessu (for me to leave) stands in apposition with hunc. But I'm not sure whether supine verbs can have a subject argument.

So, generally, can an ablative clause formed from a supine verb have nouns corresponding to the base verb's subject or object?

Consider the following line from the Aeneid, Book VI:

nec credere quivi hunc tantum tibi me discessu ferre dolorem.

Context: Aeneas has traveled into the underworld, and bumps into Dido, who he infers has committed suicide because of his departure.

My best literal translation is: "I couldn't believe this, my leaving, to bring unto you such pain," because I think that me discessu (for me to leave) stands in apposition with hunc. But I'm not sure whether supine verbs can have a subject argument.

So, generally, can an ablative clause formed from a supine verb have nouns corresponding to the base verb's subject or object?

I emended grammar, morphology, orthography, syntax, and/or ameliorated ambiguity or vagueness.
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user37
user37

Consider the following line from the Aeneid, Book VI:

nec credere quivi hunc tantum tibi me discessu ferre dolorem.

Context: Aeneas has traveled into the underworld, and bumps into Dido, who heAeneas infers has committed suicide because of his departure.

My best literal translation is: "I couldn't believe this, my leaving, to bring unto you such pain," because I think that me discessu (for me to leave) stands in apposition with hunc. But I'm not sure whether supine verbs can have a subject argument.

So, generally, can an ablative clause formed from a supine verb have nouns corresponding to the base verb's subject or object?

Consider the following line from the Aeneid, Book VI:

nec credere quivi hunc tantum tibi me discessu ferre dolorem.

Context: Aeneas has traveled into the underworld, and bumps into Dido, who he infers has committed suicide because of his departure.

My best literal translation is: "I couldn't believe this, my leaving, to bring unto you such pain," because I think that me discessu (for me to leave) stands in apposition with hunc. But I'm not sure whether supine verbs can have a subject argument.

So, generally, can an ablative clause formed from a supine verb have nouns corresponding to the base verb's subject or object?

Consider the following line from the Aeneid, Book VI:

nec credere quivi hunc tantum tibi me discessu ferre dolorem.

Context: Aeneas has traveled into the underworld, and bumps into Dido, who Aeneas infers has committed suicide because of his departure.

My best literal translation is: "I couldn't believe this, my leaving, to bring unto you such pain," because I think that me discessu (for me to leave) stands in apposition with hunc. But I'm not sure whether supine verbs can have a subject argument.

So, generally, can an ablative clause formed from a supine verb have nouns corresponding to the base verb's subject or object?

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Joonas Ilmavirta
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user1002
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