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Apr 9, 2020 at 21:20 history edited Sebastian Koppehel CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 9, 2020 at 20:49 comment added Sebastian Koppehel @MartinO'Reilly The distinction may be lost in translation, yes. I extended the answer to add a short discussion of how to deal with this when translating. (I also removed the term "factual quod" as it is apparently not the correct term here.)
Apr 9, 2020 at 20:48 history edited Sebastian Koppehel CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 9, 2020 at 9:53 comment added tony @Martin O'Reilly: Are you familiar with epistemic modality? See Cerberus & cnread in Q: latin.stackexchange.com/q/5575/1982.
Apr 9, 2020 at 8:54 comment added Martin O'Reilly Thank you so much Sebastian for a very comprehensive answer. Your link to the other question was particularly helpful. Am I right in saying that one can only know from the Latin (not the translation) whether the 'quod' is factual or not.?
Apr 8, 2020 at 18:31 history answered Sebastian Koppehel CC BY-SA 4.0